NSE8_812 Questions Pass on Your First Attempt Dumps for Fortinet Network Security Expert Certified [Q21-Q41]

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NSE8_812 Questions Pass on Your First Attempt Dumps for Fortinet Network Security Expert Certified

NSE8_812 Practice Test Pdf Exam Material

NEW QUESTION # 21
Refer to the exhibit showing the history logs from a FortiMail device.

Which FortiMail email security feature can an administrator enable to treat these emails as spam?

  • A. DKIM validation in a session profile
  • B. Sender domain validation in a session profile
  • C. Impersonation analysis in an antispam profile
  • D. Soft fail SPF validation in an antispam profile

Answer: C

Explanation:
Impersonation analysis is a feature that detects emails that attempt to impersonate a trusted sender, such as a company executive or a well-known brand, by using spoofed or look-alike email addresses. This feature can help prevent phishing and business email compromise (BEC) attacks. Impersonation analysis can be enabled in an antispam profile and applied to a firewall policy. References: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimail/6.4.0/administration-guide/103663/impersonation-analysis


NEW QUESTION # 22
What is the benefit of using FortiGate NAC LAN Segments?

  • A. It provides support for multiple DHCP servers within the same VLAN.
  • B. It provides support for IGMP snooping between hosts within the same VLAN
  • C. It provides physical isolation without changing the IP address of hosts.
  • D. It allows for assignment of dynamic address objects matching NAC policy.

Answer: D

Explanation:
FortiGate NAC LAN Segments are a feature that allows users to assign different VLANs to different LAN segments without changing the IP address of hosts or bouncing the switch port. This provides physical isolation while maintaining firewall sessions and avoiding DHCP issues. One benefit of using FortiGate NAC LAN Segments is that it allows for assignment of dynamic address objects matching NAC policy. This means that users can create firewall policies based on dynamic address objects that match the NAC policy criteria, such as device type, OS type, MAC address, etc. This simplifies firewall policy management and enhances security by applying different security profiles to different types of devices. References: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/new-features/856212/nac-lan-segments-7-0-1


NEW QUESTION # 23
Which two methods are supported for importing user defined Lookup Table Data into the FortiSIEM? (Choose two.)

  • A. FTP
  • B. Report
  • C. SCP
  • D. API

Answer: B,D

Explanation:
FortiSIEM supports two methods for importing user defined Lookup Table Data:
Report: You can import lookup table data from a report. This is the most common method for importing lookup table data.
API: You can also import lookup table data using the FortiSIEM API. This is a more advanced method that allows you to import lookup table data programmatically.
FTP, SCP, and other file transfer protocols are not supported for importing lookup table data into FortiSIEM.


NEW QUESTION # 24
Refer to the exhibits.


A customer is looking for a solution to authenticate the clients connected to a hardware switch interface of a FortiGate 400E.
Referring to the exhibits, which two conditions allow authentication to the client devices before assigning an IP address? (Choose two.)

  • A. Ports 3 and 4 can be part of different switch interfaces.
  • B. Devices connected directly to ports 3 and 4 can perform 802 1X authentication.
  • C. Client devices must have 802 1X authentication enabled
  • D. FortiGate devices with NP6 and hardware switch interfaces cannot support 802.1X authentication.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The customer wants to deploy a solution to authenticate the clients connected to a hardware switch interface of a FortiGate 400E device. A hardware switch interface is an interface that combines multiple physical interfaces into one logical interface, allowing them to act as a single switch with one IP address and one set of security policies. The customer wants to use 802.1X authentication for this solution, which is a standard protocol for port-based network access control (PNAC) that authenticates clients based on their credentials before granting them access to network resources. One condition that allows authentication to the client devices before assigning an IP address is that devices connected directly to ports 3 and 4 can perform 802.1X authentication. This is because ports 3 and 4 are part of the hardware switch interface named "lan", which has an IP address of 10.10.10.254/24 and an inbound SSL inspection profile named "ssl-inspection". The inbound SSL inspection profile enables the FortiGate device to intercept and inspect SSL/TLS traffic from clients before forwarding it to servers, which allows it to apply security policies and features such as antivirus, web filtering, application control, etc. However, before performing SSL inspection, the FortiGate device needs to authenticate the clients using 802.1X authentication, which requires the clients to send their credentials (such as username and password) to the FortiGate device over a secure EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) channel. The FortiGate device then verifies the credentials with an authentication server (such as RADIUS or LDAP) and grants or denies access to the clients based on the authentication result. Therefore, devices connected directly to ports 3 and 4 can perform 802.1X authentication before assigning an IP address. Another condition that allows authentication to the client devices before assigning an IP address is that client devices must have 802.1X authentication enabled. This is because 802.1X authentication is a mutual process that requires both the client devices and the FortiGate device to support and enable it. The client devices must have 802.1X authentication enabled in their network settings, which allows them to initiate the authentication process when they connect to the hardware switch interface of the FortiGate device. The client devices must also have an 802.1X supplicant software installed, which is a program that runs on the client devices and handles the communication with the FortiGate device using EAP messages. The client devices must also have a trusted certificate installed, which is used to verify the identity of the FortiGate device and establish a secure EAP channel. Therefore, client devices must have 802.1X authentication enabled before assigning an IP address. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/administration-guide/19662/hardware-switch-interfaces https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/administration-guide/19662/802-1x-authentication


NEW QUESTION # 25
You are running a diagnose command continuously as traffic flows through a platform with NP6 and you obtain the following output:

Given the information shown in the output, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

  • A. Enable HPE shaper for the NP6 will change the output
  • B. The output is showing a packet descriptor queue accumulated counter
  • C. There are packet drops at the XAUI.
  • D. Host-shortcut mode is enabled.
  • E. Enabling bandwidth control between the ISF and the NP will change the output

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The diagnose command shown in the output is used to display information about NP6 packet descriptor queues. The output shows that there are 16 NP6 units in total, and each unit has four XAUI ports (XA0-XA3). The output also shows that there are some non-zero values in the columns PDQ ACCU (packet descriptor queue accumulated counter) and PDQ DROP (packet descriptor queue drop counter). These values indicate that there are some packet descriptor queues that have reached their maximum capacity and have dropped some packets at the XAUI ports. This could be caused by congestion or misconfiguration of the XAUI ports or the ISF (Internal Switch Fabric). Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/cli-reference/19662/diagnose-np6-pdq


NEW QUESTION # 26
Refer to the exhibit showing an SD-WAN configuration.

According to the exhibit, if an internal user pings 10.1.100.2 and 10.1.100.22 from subnet 172.16.205.0/24, which outgoing interfaces will be used?

  • A. port1 and port1
  • B. port1 and port15
  • C. port16 and port1
  • D. port16 and port15

Answer: C

Explanation:
According to the exhibit, the SD-WAN configuration has two rules: one for traffic to 10.1.100.0/24 subnet, and one for traffic to 10.1.100.16/28 subnet. The first rule uses the best quality strategy, which selects the SD-WAN member with the best measured quality based on performance SLA metrics. The second rule uses the manual strategy, which specifies port1 as the SD-WAN member to select. Therefore, if an internal user pings 10.1.100.2 and 10.1.100.22 from subnet 172.16.205.0/24, the outgoing interfaces will be port16 and port1 respectively, assuming that port16 has the best quality among the SD-WAN members. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.2.14/cookbook/218559/configuring-the-sd-wan-interface


NEW QUESTION # 27
Refer to the exhibit.

You are deploying a FortiGate 6000F. The device should be directly connected to a switch. In the future, a new hardware module providing higher speed will be installed in the switch, and the connection to the FortiGate must be moved to this higher-speed port.
You must ensure that the initial FortiGate interface connected to the switch does not affect any other port when the new module is installed and the new port speed is defined.
How should the initial connection be made?

  • A. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 1 to 4
  • B. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 21 to 24
  • C. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 5 to 8.
  • D. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 25 to 28

Answer: A

Explanation:
The FortiGate 6000F has 24 1/10/25-Gbps SFP28 data network interfaces (1 to 24). These interfaces are divided into the following interface groups: 1 to 4, 5 to 8, 9 to 12, 13 to 16, 17 to 20, and 21 to 24. The ports 25 to 28 are 40/100-Gbps QSFP28 data network interfaces.
The initial connection should be made to any interface between ports 1 to 4. This is because the ports 21 to 24 are part of the same interface group, and changing the speed of one of these ports will affect the speeds of all of the ports in the group. The ports 5 to 8 are also part of the same interface group, so they should not be used for the initial connection.
The new hardware module that will be installed in the switch will provide higher speed ports. When this module is installed, the speed of the ports 21 to 24 will be increased. However, this will not affect the ports 1 to 4, because they are not part of the same interface group.
Therefore, the initial connection should be made to any interface between ports 1 to 4, in order to ensure that the FortiGate interface connected to the switch does not affect any other port when the new module is installed and the new port speed is defined.
Reference:
FortiGate 6000F Front Panel Interfaces: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate-6000/hardware/fortigate-6000f-system-guide/827055/front-panel-interfaces


NEW QUESTION # 28
A customer is planning on moving their secondary data center to a cloud-based laaS. They want to place all the Oracle-based systems Oracle Cloud, while the other systems will be on Microsoft Azure with ExpressRoute service to their main data center.
They have about 200 branches with two internet services as their only WAN connections. As a security consultant you are asked to design an architecture using Fortinet products with security, redundancy and performance as a priority.
Which two design options are true based on these requirements? (Choose two.)

  • A. Systems running on Azure will need to go through the main data center to access the services on Oracle Cloud.
  • B. Use FortiGate VM for IPSEC over ExpressRoute, as traffic is not encrypted by Azure.
  • C. Two ExpressRoute services to the main data center are required to implement SD-WAN between a FortiGate VM in Azure and a FortiGate device at the data center edge
  • D. Branch FortiGate devices must be configured as VPN clients for the branches' internal network to be able to access Oracle services without using public IPs.

Answer: A,D

Explanation:
a) Systems running on Azure will need to go through the main data center to access the services on Oracle Cloud. This is because the Oracle Cloud is not directly connected to the Azure Cloud. The traffic will need to go through the main data center in order to reach the Oracle Cloud.
c) Branch FortiGate devices must be configured as VPN clients for the branches' internal network to be able to access Oracle services without using public IPs. This is because the Oracle Cloud does not allow direct connections from the internet. The traffic will need to go through the FortiGate devices in order to reach the Oracle Cloud.
The other options are not correct.
b) Use FortiGate VM for IPSEC over ExpressRoute, as traffic is not encrypted by Azure. This is not necessary. Azure does encrypt traffic over ExpressRoute.
d) Two ExpressRoute services to the main data center are required to implement SD-WAN between a FortiGate VM in Azure and a FortiGate device at the data center edge. This is not necessary. A single ExpressRoute service can be used to implement SD-WAN between a FortiGate VM in Azure and a FortiGate device at the data center edge.


NEW QUESTION # 29
Refer to the exhibit showing FortiGate configurations

FortiManager VM high availability (HA) is not functioning as expected after being added to an existing deployment.
The administrator finds that VRRP HA mode is selected, but primary and secondary roles are greyed out in the GUI The managed devices never show online when FMG-B becomes primary, but they will show online whenever the FMG-A becomes primary.
What change will correct HA functionality in this scenario?

  • A. Change the FortiManager IP address on the managed FortiGate to 10.3.106.65.
  • B. Change the priority of FMG-A to be numerically lower for higher preference
  • C. Unset the primary and secondary roles in the FortiManager CLI configuration so VRRP will decide who is primary.
  • D. Make the monitored IP to match on both FortiManager devices.

Answer: D

Explanation:
B is correct because the monitored IP must match on both FortiManager devices for HA to function properly. This is explained in the FortiManager Administration Guide under High Availability > Configuring HA options > Configuring HA options using the GUI. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimanager/7.4.0/administration-guide/568591/high-availability https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortimanager/7.4.0/administration-guide/568591/high-availability/568592/configuring-ha-options


NEW QUESTION # 30
Refer to the exhibits.

The exhibits show a FortiGate network topology and the output of the status of high availability on the FortiGate.
Given this information, which statement is correct?

  • A. FGVMEVLQOG33WM3D and FGVMEVGCJNHFYI4A share a virtual MAC address.
  • B. The ethertype values of the HA packets are 0x8890, 0x8891, and 0x8892
  • C. The cluster mode can support a maximum of four (4) FortiGate VMs
  • D. The cluster members are on the same network and the IP addresses were statically assigned.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The output of the status of high availability on the FortiGate shows that the cluster mode is active-passive, which means that only one FortiGate unit is active at a time, while the other unit is in standby mode. The active unit handles all traffic and also sends HA heartbeat packets to monitor the standby unit. The standby unit becomes active if it stops receiving heartbeat packets from the active unit, or if it receives a higher priority from another cluster unit. In active-passive mode, all cluster units share a virtual MAC address for each interface, which is used as the source MAC address for all packets forwarded by the cluster. References: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/6.4.0/cookbook/103439/high-availability-with-two-fortigates


NEW QUESTION # 31
Refer to the exhibit.

A customer has deployed a FortiGate 300E with virtual domains (VDOMs) enabled in the multi-VDOM mode. There are three VDOMs: Root is for management and internet access, while VDOM 1 and VDOM 2 are used for segregating internal traffic. AccountVInk and SalesVInk are standard VDOM links in Ethernet mode.
Given the exhibit, which two statements below about VDOM behavior are correct? (Choose two.)

  • A. You can apply OSPF routing on the VDOM link in either PPP or Ethernet mode
  • B. Traffic on AccountVInk and SalesVInk will not be accelerated.
  • C. The VDOM links are in Ethernet mode because they have IP addressed assigned on both sides.
  • D. OSPF routing can be configured between VDOM 1 and Root VDOM without any configuration changes to AccountVInk
  • E. Root VDOM is an Admin type VDOM, while VDOM 1 and VDOM 2 are Traffic type VDOMs.

Answer: A,E

Explanation:
a) You can apply OSPF routing on the VDOM link in either PPP or Ethernet mode. This is because VDOM links can be configured in either PPP or Ethernet mode, and OSPF routing can be configured on both types of links.
d) Root VDOM is an Admin type VDOM, while VDOM 1 and VDOM 2 are Traffic type VDOMs. This is because the Root VDOM is the default VDOM, and it is used for management and internet access. VDOM 1 and VDOM 2 are traffic type VDOMs, which are used for segregating internal traffic.
The other options are not correct.
b) Traffic on AccountVInk and SalesVInk will not be accelerated. This is because VDOM links are not accelerated by default. However, you can configure acceleration on VDOM links if you want.
c) The VDOM links are in Ethernet mode because they have IP addressed assigned on both sides. This is not necessarily true. The VDOM links could be in PPP mode even if they have IP addresses assigned on both sides.
e) OSPF routing can be configured between VDOM 1 and Root VDOM without any configuration changes to AccountVInk. This is correct. OSPF routing can be configured between any two VDOMs, even if they are not directly connected. In this case, the OSPF routing would be configured on the AccountVInk link.


NEW QUESTION # 32
Refer to the exhibit.

You are deploying a FortiGate 6000F. The device should be directly connected to a switch. In the future, a new hardware module providing higher speed will be installed in the switch, and the connection to the FortiGate must be moved to this higher-speed port.
You must ensure that the initial FortiGate interface connected to the switch does not affect any other port when the new module is installed and the new port speed is defined.
How should the initial connection be made?

  • A. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 21 to 24
  • B. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 1 to 4
  • C. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 5 to 8.
  • D. Connect the switch on any interface between ports 25 to 28

Answer: A

Explanation:
The FortiGate 6000F is a high-performance firewall appliance that has 28 network interfaces with different speeds and types. The device should be directly connected to a switch that will have a new hardware module providing higher speed in the future. The connection to the FortiGate must be moved to this higher-speed port without affecting any other port. Therefore, the initial connection should be made on any interface between ports 21 to 24, which are 10G SFP+ interfaces. These interfaces are independent from each other and do not share bandwidth with any other interface. This means that moving the connection to a higher-speed port in the future will not affect any other port on the FortiGate. Option A shows the correct answer. Option B is incorrect because ports 25 to 28 are 40G QSFP+ interfaces, which share bandwidth with ports 21 to 24. Moving the connection to a higher-speed port in the future will affect the bandwidth of these ports. Option C is incorrect because ports 1 to 4 are 100G QSFP28 interfaces, which share bandwidth with ports 5 to 8 and ports 9 to 12. Moving the connection to a higher-speed port in the future will affect the bandwidth of these ports. Option D is incorrect because ports 5 to 8 are 25G SFP28 interfaces, which share bandwidth with ports 1 to 4 and ports 9 to 12. Moving the connection to a higher-speed port in the future will affect the bandwidth of these ports. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/hardware-acceleration-guide/19662/fortigate-6000f


NEW QUESTION # 33
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the forensics analysis of an event detected by the FortiEDR core In this scenario, which statement is correct regarding the threat?

  • A. This is an exfiltration attack and has been stopped by FortiEDR.
  • B. This is an exfiltration attack and has not been stopped by FortiEDR
  • C. This is a ransomware attack and has not been stopped by FortiEDR.
  • D. This is a ransomware attack and has been stopped by FortiEDR

Answer: D

Explanation:
The exhibit shows the forensics analysis of an event detected by the FortiEDR core. The event graph indicates that a process named svchost.exe was launched by a malicious file named 1.exe, which was downloaded from a suspicious URL. The process then attempted to encrypt files in various folders, such as Documents, Pictures, and Desktop, which are typical targets of ransomware attacks. However, FortiEDR was able to stop the process and prevent any file encryption by applying its real-time post-execution prevention feature. Therefore, this is a ransomware attack and has been stopped by FortiEDR. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiedr/6.0.0/administration-guide/733983/forensics https://www.fortinet.com/content/dam/fortinet/assets/data-sheets/fortiedr.pdf


NEW QUESTION # 34
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows the forensics analysis of an event detected by the FortiEDR core In this scenario, which statement is correct regarding the threat?

  • A. This is a ransomware attack and has been stopped by FortiEDR
  • B. This is an exfiltration attack and has not been stopped by FortiEDR
  • C. This is an exfiltration attack and has been stopped by FortiEDR.
  • D. This is a ransomware attack and has not been stopped by FortiEDR.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The exhibit shows that the FortiEDR core has detected an exfiltration attack. The attack is attempting to copy files from the device to an external location. The FortiEDR core has blocked the attack, and the files have not been exfiltrated.
The exhibit also shows that the attack is using the Cobalt Strike beacon. Cobalt Strike is a penetration testing tool that can be used for both legitimate and malicious purposes. In this case, the Cobalt Strike beacon is being used to exfiltrate files from the device.
The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect because the attack has not been stopped. Option C is incorrect because the attack is not a ransomware attack. Option D is incorrect because the FortiEDR core has not stopped the attack.
References:
FortiEDR Forensics: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortiedr/6.0.0/administration-guide/733983/forensics Cobalt Strike: https://www.cobaltstrike.com/


NEW QUESTION # 35
You want to use the MTA adapter feature on FortiSandbox in an HA-Cluster. Which statement about this solution is true?

  • A. The MTA adapter mode is only detection mode.
  • B. The configuration of the MTA Adapter Local Interface is different than on port1.
  • C. The configuration is different than on a standalone device.
  • D. The MTA adapter is only available in the primary node.

Answer: D

Explanation:
The MTA adapter feature on FortiSandbox is a feature that allows FortiSandbox to act as a mail transfer agent (MTA) that can receive, inspect, and forward email messages from external sources. The MTA adapter feature can be used to integrate FortiSandbox with third-party email security solutions that do not support direct integration with FortiSandbox, such as Microsoft Exchange Server or Cisco Email Security Appliance (ESA). The MTA adapter feature can also be used to enhance email security by adding an additional layer of inspection and filtering before delivering email messages to the final destination. The MTA adapter feature can be enabled on FortiSandbox in an HA-Cluster, which is a configuration that allows two FortiSandbox units to synchronize their settings and data and provide high availability and load balancing for sandboxing services. However, one statement about this solution that is true is that the MTA adapter is only available in the primary node. This means that only one FortiSandbox unit in the HA-Cluster can act as an MTA and receive email messages from external sources, while the other unit acts as a backup node that can take over the MTA role if the primary node fails or loses connectivity. This also means that only one IP address or FQDN can be used to configure the external sources to send email messages to the FortiSandbox MTA, which is the IP address or FQDN of the primary node. Reference: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortisandbox/3.2.0/administration-guide/19662/mail-transfer-agent-mta https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortisandbox/3.2.0/administration-guide/19662/high-availability-ha


NEW QUESTION # 36
Refer to the exhibits.


A customer is looking for a solution to authenticate the clients connected to a hardware switch interface of a FortiGate 400E.
Referring to the exhibits, which two conditions allow authentication to the client devices before assigning an IP address? (Choose two.)

  • A. Ports 3 and 4 can be part of different switch interfaces.
  • B. Devices connected directly to ports 3 and 4 can perform 802 1X authentication.
  • C. Client devices must have 802 1X authentication enabled
  • D. FortiGate devices with NP6 and hardware switch interfaces cannot support 802.1X authentication.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
The customer wants to deploy a solution to authenticate the clients connected to a hardware switch interface of a FortiGate 400E device. A hardware switch interface is an interface that combines multiple physical interfaces into one logical interface, allowing them to act as a single switch with one IP address and one set of security policies. The customer wants to use 802.1X authentication for this solution, which is a standard protocol for port-based network access control (PNAC) that authenticates clients based on their credentials before granting them access to network resources. One condition that allows authentication to the client devices before assigning an IP address is that devices connected directly to ports 3 and 4 can perform 802.1X authentication. This is because ports 3 and 4 are part of the hardware switch interface named "lan", which has an IP address of 10.10.10.254/24 and an inbound SSL inspection profile named "ssl-inspection". The inbound SSL inspection profile enables the FortiGate device to intercept and inspect SSL/TLS traffic from clients before forwarding it to servers, which allows it to apply security policies and features such as antivirus, web filtering, application control, etc. However, before performing SSL inspection, the FortiGate device needs to authenticate the clients using 802.1X authentication, which requires the clients to send their credentials (such as username and password) to the FortiGate device over a secure EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol) channel. The FortiGate device then verifies the credentials with an authentication server (such as RADIUS or LDAP) and grants or denies access to the clients based on the authentication result. Therefore, devices connected directly to ports 3 and 4 can perform 802.1X authentication before assigning an IP address. Another condition that allows authentication to the client devices before assigning an IP address is that client devices must have 802.1X authentication enabled. This is because 802.1X authentication is a mutual process that requires both the client devices and the FortiGate device to support and enable it. The client devices must have 802.1X authentication enabled in their network settings, which allows them to initiate the authentication process when they connect to the hardware switch interface of the FortiGate device. The client devices must also have an 802.1X supplicant software installed, which is a program that runs on the client devices and handles the communication with the FortiGate device using EAP messages. The client devices must also have a trusted certificate installed, which is used to verify the identity of the FortiGate device and establish a secure EAP channel. Therefore, client devices must have 802.1X authentication enabled before assigning an IP address. References: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/administration-guide/19662/hardware-switch-interfaces https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.0.0/administration-guide/19662/802-1x-authentication


NEW QUESTION # 37
Refer to the exhibits.

A customer has deployed a FortiGate with iBGP and eBGP routing enabled. HQ is receiving routes over eBGP from ISP 2; however, only certain routes are showing up in the routing table-Assume that BGP is working perfectly and that the only possible modifications to the routing table are solely due to the prefix list that is applied on HQ.
Given the exhibits, which two routes will be active in the routing table on the HQ firewall? (Choose two.)

  • A. 172,620,64,27
  • B. 172.16.201.96/29
  • C. 172.16.204.128/25
  • D. 172.16.204.64/27

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
The prefix list in the exhibit is configured to match prefixes that are either in the 172.16.204.0/24 subnet or in the 172.62.0.0/16 subnet. The routes that match these prefixes will be active in the routing table on the HQ firewall.
The routes that match the following prefixes will not be active in the routing table:
172.16.201.96/29
172.62.0.64/27
These routes do not match the criteria set by the prefix list.
References:
Prefix lists | FortiGate / FortiOS 7.4.0 - Fortinet Document Library
Configuring BGP | FortiGate / FortiOS 7.4.0 - Fortinet Document Library


NEW QUESTION # 38
Refer to the exhibits.


A customer wants to deploy 12 FortiAP 431F devices on high density conference center, but they do not currently have any PoE switches to connect them to. They want to be able to run them at full power while having network redundancy From the FortiSwitch models and sample retail prices shown in the exhibit, which build of materials would have the lowest cost, while fulfilling the customer's requirements?

  • A. 2x FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE
  • B. 2x FortiSwitch 124E-FPOE
  • C. 2x FortiSwitch 224E-POE
  • D. 1x FortiSwitch 248EFPOE

Answer: A

Explanation:
The customer wants to deploy 12 FortiAP 431F devices on a high density conference center, but they do not have any PoE switches to connect them to. They want to be able to run them at full power while having network redundancy. PoE switches are switches that can provide both data and power to connected devices over Ethernet cables, eliminating the need for separate power adapters or outlets. PoE switches are useful for deploying devices such as wireless access points, IP cameras, and VoIP phones in locations where power outlets are scarce or inconvenient. The FortiAP 431F is a wireless access point that supports PoE+ (IEEE 802.3at) standard, which can deliver up to 30W of power per port. The FortiAP 431F has a maximum power consumption of 25W when running at full power. Therefore, to run 12 FortiAP 431F devices at full power, the customer needs PoE switches that can provide at least 300W of total PoE power budget (25W x 12). The customer also needs network redundancy, which means that they need at least two PoE switches to connect the FortiAP devices in case one switch fails or loses power. From the FortiSwitch models and sample retail prices shown in the exhibit, the build of materials that has the lowest cost while fulfilling the customer's requirements is 2x FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE. The FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE is a PoE switch that has 48 GE ports with PoE+ capability and a total PoE power budget of 370W. It also has 4x 10 GE SFP+ uplink ports for high-speed connectivity. The sample retail price of the FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE is $1,995, which means that two units will cost $3,990. This is the lowest cost among the other options that can meet the customer's requirements. Option A is incorrect because the FortiSwitch 248EFPOE is a non-PoE switch that has no PoE capability or power budget. It cannot provide power to the FortiAP devices over Ethernet cables. Option B is incorrect because the FortiSwitch 224E-POE is a PoE switch that has only 24 GE ports with PoE+ capability and a total PoE power budget of 185W. It cannot provide enough ports or power to run 12 FortiAP devices at full power. Option D is incorrect because the FortiSwitch 124E-FPOE is a PoE switch that has only 24 GE ports with PoE+ capability and a total PoE power budget of 185W. It cannot provide enough ports or power to run 12 FortiAP devices at full power. Reference: https://www.fortinet.com/content/dam/fortinet/assets/data-sheets/FortiSwitch_Secure_Access_Series.pdf https://www.fortinet.com/content/dam/fortinet/assets/data-sheets/FortiAP_400_Series.pdf


NEW QUESTION # 39
Refer to the exhibits.
The exhibits show a diagram of a requested topology and the base IPsec configuration.
A customer asks you to configure ADVPN via two internet underlays. The requirement is that you use one interface with a single IP address on DC FortiGate.
In this scenario, which feature should be implemented to achieve this requirement?

  • A. Use peer-id
  • B. Use local-id
  • C. Change advpn2 to IKEv1
  • D. Use network-overlay id

Answer: D

Explanation:
A is correct because using network-overlay id allows you to configure multiple ADVPN tunnels on a single interface with a single IP address on the DC FortiGate. This is explained in the FortiGate Administration Guide under ADVPN > Configuring ADVPN > Configuring ADVPN on the hub. References: https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.4.0/administration-guide/978793/advpn https://docs.fortinet.com/document/fortigate/7.4.0/administration-guide/978793/advpn/978794/configuring-advpn


NEW QUESTION # 40
Refer to the exhibits.


A customer wants to deploy 12 FortiAP 431F devices on high density conference center, but they do not currently have any PoE switches to connect them to. They want to be able to run them at full power while having network redundancy From the FortiSwitch models and sample retail prices shown in the exhibit, which build of materials would have the lowest cost, while fulfilling the customer's requirements?

  • A. 2x FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE
  • B. 2x FortiSwitch 124E-FPOE
  • C. 2x FortiSwitch 224E-POE
  • D. 1x FortiSwitch 248EFPOE

Answer: A

Explanation:
The customer wants to deploy 12 FortiAP 431F devices on a high density conference center, but they do not have any PoE switches to connect them to. They want to be able to run them at full power while having network redundancy. PoE switches are switches that can provide both data and power to connected devices over Ethernet cables, eliminating the need for separate power adapters or outlets. PoE switches are useful for deploying devices such as wireless access points, IP cameras, and VoIP phones in locations where power outlets are scarce or inconvenient. The FortiAP 431F is a wireless access point that supports PoE+ (IEEE 802.3at) standard, which can deliver up to 30W of power per port. The FortiAP 431F has a maximum power consumption of 25W when running at full power. Therefore, to run 12 FortiAP 431F devices at full power, the customer needs PoE switches that can provide at least 300W of total PoE power budget (25W x 12). The customer also needs network redundancy, which means that they need at least two PoE switches to connect the FortiAP devices in case one switch fails or loses power. From the FortiSwitch models and sample retail prices shown in the exhibit, the build of materials that has the lowest cost while fulfilling the customer's requirements is 2x FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE. The FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE is a PoE switch that has 48 GE ports with PoE+ capability and a total PoE power budget of 370W. It also has 4x 10 GE SFP+ uplink ports for high-speed connectivity. The sample retail price of the FortiSwitch 248E-FPOE is $1,995, which means that two units will cost $3,990. This is the lowest cost among the other options that can meet the customer's requirements. Option A is incorrect because the FortiSwitch 248EFPOE is a non-PoE switch that has no PoE capability or power budget. It cannot provide power to the FortiAP devices over Ethernet cables. Option B is incorrect because the FortiSwitch 224E-POE is a PoE switch that has only 24 GE ports with PoE+ capability and a total PoE power budget of 185W. It cannot provide enough ports or power to run 12 FortiAP devices at full power. Option D is incorrect because the FortiSwitch 124E-FPOE is a PoE switch that has only 24 GE ports with PoE+ capability and a total PoE power budget of 185W. It cannot provide enough ports or power to run 12 FortiAP devices at full power. References: https://www.fortinet.com/content/dam/fortinet/assets/data-sheets/FortiSwitch_Secure_Access_Series.pdf https://www.fortinet.com/content/dam/fortinet/assets/data-sheets/FortiAP_400_Series.pdf


NEW QUESTION # 41
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